Barnett v. Mendenhall

42 Iowa 296
CourtSupreme Court of Iowa
DecidedDecember 29, 1875
StatusPublished
Cited by28 cases

This text of 42 Iowa 296 (Barnett v. Mendenhall) is published on Counsel Stack Legal Research, covering Supreme Court of Iowa primary law. Counsel Stack provides free access to over 12 million legal documents including statutes, case law, regulations, and constitutions.

Bluebook
Barnett v. Mendenhall, 42 Iowa 296 (iowa 1875).

Opinion

Miller, Ch. J.

As the statement of the case shows, the action is brought to recover damages for a breach of a parol agreement, made by the defendant with the plaintiff, for the conveyance to the latter of certain real projierty. The defense set up is that a part of the land thus agreed to be conveyed was the homestead of defendant, occupied as such by himself, wife and children at the time the agreement to convey was entered into; that the same had been defendant’s homestead thus occupied for twenty years last past, and that plaintiff knew these facts at the time of the making of said agreement.

The question presented in the record and arguments of counsel is whether the defendant is liable in damages for a failure to convey his homestead in pursuance of such parol agreement, his wife not having been a party to the agreement. The [298]*298Revision of 1860, section 2279, provided that a conveyance of the homestead by the owner “is of no validity unless the husband and wife (if the owner is married) concur in and sign such conveyance.” Under this section this court held in Alley v. Bay et al., 9 Iowa, 509, that a mortgage of the homestead made by the husband alone (he being the owner and a married man), was invalid, not simply as against the wife, but absolutely so. The same doctrine is held in Yost v. Devault, Ibid., 60. That was an action to enforce specific performance of a contract made by the husband to convey the homestead, and he pleaded that he could not convey because his wife refused to join in the deed. In construing the section of the Revision above referred to, the court say “that the statute declares of no validity a conveyance made by one of them; in other words, it requires the concurrence of the other. And it seems to require no reasoning to show that a contract to convey cannot have more force; and then when it is pleaded and shown that the property contracted constituted the homestead, this'contract can receive no more favorable construction than a deed. And as, in the case of such deed, when it should be shown to carry the homestead of the party, and that his wife had not executed it, the grantee could not recover; so when it appears that a bond, covenanting to convey it, was not signed by her, a decree for specific performance cannot be passed.” See, also, Williams v. Swetland, 10 Iowa, 51; Larson v. Reynolds, et al., 13 Id., 579; Burnap v. Cook, 16 Id., 149.

The cases referred to settle two princijfies, namely: 1st. That a conveyance of the homestead by the owner (if married) is absolutely void, unless concurred in and signed by both husband and wife. 2d. That an agreement to convey' the homestead under the same circumstances is likewise invalid, and will not support an action for specific performance.

The provision of the Code on this subject is, we think, clearer and stronger than that of the Revision above quoted. It is as follows: “A conveyance or incumbrance by the owner is of no validity unless the husband and wife, if the owner is married, concur in and sign the same joint instrument.” Section 1990.

[299]*299The question was made in Luther v. Drake, 21 Iowa, 92, whether a conveyance of the homestead by the husband in a deed in which the wife did not join, and by the wife in a deed in which the husband did not join, would pass the title to the grantee named in the separate deeds, or whether in order to a valid conveyance the husband and wife should have concurred in and signed one and the same conveyance. The opinion intimates that as then advised the members of the court were not united in the solution of this question, and it was left undecided.

The above provision of the Code, however, comes in and solves the question by requiring that in order to a valid conveyance of the homestead, the husband and wife, if the owner is married, shall “ eoneur in and sign the same joint instrument.” It declares that any conveyance or incumbrance not thus executed “is of no validity.” It is clear, upon this ground also, that the agreement of the owner- to convey is of no validity when it is not by a joint instrument concurred in and sigued by both husband and wife, for this is the only valid mode of conveying or incumbering the homestead. The agreement in this case being the parol agreement of the husband alone is, therefore, of no validity for the double reason that it is not a joint instrument of writing concurred in and signed by both husband and wife.

The agreement being void, can the- breach thereof, by the defendant, be made the basis' of an action for damages? It would seem unnecessary to adduce any argument in support of the negative of this proposition. We have never yet found it stated in any text book or report of adjudged eases that an action -would lie for refusing to perform a void agreement. The law awards damages for the breach of a contract, but an agreement which the law declares invalid is not a contract; it is an agreement which creates no obligation. There is, therefore, no breach where there is no obligation- to perform. Unless a valid contract has been entered into there can be no legal breach for failing or refusing to perform it, and there can be no liability to an action of any kind for a failure to carry out an agreement which the law has declared to be in[300]*300valid. The basis for the action for damages is the alleged breach of contract, but there being no contract — no binding contract — there is no basis for the action. For example, where the statute of frauds requires certain contracts to be in writing, no action for damages will lie against a person who takes advantage of the statute and refuses to perform a parol agreement which conies within the statute. So with agreements made on Sunday. They will not be enforced, nor will an action for damages lie against one who refuses to perform such contract. There can be no legal breach of such contract because the same has no binding force. There being no obligation to perform, no action for damages will lie for a refusal.

Counsel for appellee argue that although a conveyance of land to which the grantor had no title would be void as a conveyance, yet he might make a valid and binding contract to procure a good title to the land to be made to his vendee, and that for a breach of such contract he would be liable in damages; and they urge that, upon similar reasoning, the husband is liable upon his agreement to convey the homestead, although his deed without the concurrence of the wife would be invalid.

In the first place the learned counsel are mistaken in assuming that a contract for the conveyance of land to which the vendor has no title is of any greater validity or binding force than a deed of the land made by such person, with a covenant of seizin. In the case of the deed no title would pass, it is true, but if the grantor should subsequently acquire the title it would inure and pass to his grantee. And if he did not acquire the title an action on the covenant of seizin for damages would lie.

In the next place a contract to convey, or procure a conveyance for, land to which the vendor does not have title is not declared invalid by any statute, nor is it contrary to public policy or invalid under the common law of the country. On the other hand such contracts are valid and binding, and because they are so, actions for breaches thereof may be maintained.

So, also, where the vendor, being the owner of the land, makes a contract to convey the same, it not being or including [301]

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Bluebook (online)
42 Iowa 296, Counsel Stack Legal Research, https://law.counselstack.com/opinion/barnett-v-mendenhall-iowa-1875.